Is -sec(x) +1 the same as cos(x)?

Question

0

813

1

Guest Dec 17, 2014

+23254

+5

Best Answer

No.

For example, say that x = 30°:

cos(30°) = √3/2 (approximately 0.8660)

sec(x) = 1 / cos(x) ---> sec(30°) = 1 / (√3 / 2) = 2/√3 (approximately 1.1547)

-sec(30°) + 1 = -2/√3 + 1 (approximately -0.1547)

And, this isn't cos(30°).

geno3141 Dec 17, 2014

geno3141 · Answer 1 · 2014-12-17T06:10:06

No.

For example, say that x = 30°:

cos(30°) = √3/2 (approximately 0.8660)

sec(x) = 1 / cos(x) ---> sec(30°) = 1 / (√3 / 2) = 2/√3 (approximately 1.1547)

-sec(30°) + 1 = -2/√3 + 1 (approximately -0.1547)

And, this isn't cos(30°).