GoldenLeaf's approach was almost right, but he should have had 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1 in the numerators.
There are 5 possible choices for the first number, so probability of this is 5/40. For each of these
there are 4 possible choices for the 2nd number, so probability of both 1st and 2nd is (5/40)*(4/39). For each of these ... etc. to get the overall probability as
$${\mathtt{p}} = \left({\frac{{\mathtt{5}}}{{\mathtt{40}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{4}}}{{\mathtt{39}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{3}}}{{\mathtt{38}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{2}}}{{\mathtt{37}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{1}}}{{\mathtt{36}}}}\right) \Rightarrow {\mathtt{p}} = {\mathtt{0.000\: \!001\: \!519\: \!738\: \!361\: \!8}}$$
or p≈1.52*10-6
1/p = 658008