I'm not sure I agree with Chris here. If the question is asking what is the probability of getting exactly one ace, then my reasoning would be:
prob of 1st card being an ace = 4/52
prob of 2nd card not being an ace = 48/51
so prob of "ace" followed by "not ace" = (4/52)*(48/51)
prob of 1st card not being an ace = 48/52
prob of 2nd card being an ace = 4/51
so prob of "not ace" followed by "ace" = (48/52)*(4/51)
Overall prob of exactly one ace = (4/52)*(48/51) + (48/52)*(4/51)
$$\left({\frac{{\mathtt{4}}}{{\mathtt{52}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{48}}}{{\mathtt{51}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\small\textbf+\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{48}}}{{\mathtt{52}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{4}}}{{\mathtt{51}}}}\right) = {\frac{{\mathtt{32}}}{{\mathtt{221}}}} = {\mathtt{0.144\: \!796\: \!380\: \!090\: \!497\: \!7}}$$
If the question is what is the probability of at least one ace then:
prob of 1st card not an ace = 48/52
prob of 2nd card not an ace = 47/51
prob of at least one ace = 1 - (48/52)*(47/51)
$${\mathtt{1}}{\mathtt{\,-\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{48}}}{{\mathtt{52}}}}\right){\mathtt{\,\times\,}}\left({\frac{{\mathtt{47}}}{{\mathtt{51}}}}\right) = {\frac{{\mathtt{33}}}{{\mathtt{221}}}} = {\mathtt{0.149\: \!321\: \!266\: \!968\: \!325\: \!8}}$$
.