My argument for #18:
1) Since lim(x→∞) (x² + 1)/(x + 1) = ∞,
2) the problem has the same limit as lim(x→∞) invSec(x)
3) which has the same limit as lim(x→∞) invCos(1/x)
4) and since lim(x→∞) (1/x) = 0,
5) it becomes lim(x→0) Cos(x) = 1.
Any questions on any of the step?
I haven't looked at the other two yet.